[dpmartin]

Dexter78
So what your telling me and correct me if I am wrong.

This law existed before anything else in existence. If this law or any part of this law can be expressed in the language of mathematic then the law must have been expressed in order for the rest of existence to comply. And can be known by and express from mankind. In order to be, it must be allowed by the law. Nothing is outside this law, this law cannot lie, for if it is the law, it is.
If someone does not believe the law to get a desired result then they get a undesired result which is also expressed in the law. Not only that, ignorance of the law would not be an excuse if there was an undesired result.
Also if there is an ultimate law, life is allowed by law and the conditions for life are also a part of the law. And the law in reference to life is expressed before the rest of existence for the law must have existed in whole before the rest of existence. Also the knowledge of life is in the law. For if it is not a part of the law, it would not be. Therefore the law, which would have to be the truth, rules over all else.
Also, the law existed before all else therefore it is possible that the truth always was. And the law remains always, and the law will always be since it did not require the rest of existence to be in the first place.


As far as will, don’t count it out. Why are things not otherwise then they are, and the law maintains order, does it not? Order for what, and why? Why not existence with out the law?


If this seems a little blurry, I apologize, not much sleep, but I wanted to keep this going.


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Mankind must be under the Truth, The Way, and The Life, for mankind cannot make any of these. Only declare or deny they are, or lie about it.
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